1 module 8 semestr 4 course

1.     A healthy 23 yr old G1P0 has an uncomplicated pregnancy to date. She is dissapointed because she is 41 weeks gestational age by good dates and a 1^st trimester USG and wants to have her baby. Pt
reports good fetal movements, baby's kick count is abt. 8-10 times/hr. On exam cervix is firm, posterior, 50% effaced and 1 cm dilated and vertex is at -1 stn. What will be the next advice for the pt.

a.     Admission and immidiate CS

b.     Admission and Pitocin induction

c.     Schedule a CS in one week if she has not undergone spontaneous
labor in the mean time

d.     She should continue to monitor kick count and return to you after
a week to reassess the situation

A healthy 23 yr old G1P0 has an uncomplicated pregnancy to date. She is dissapointed because she is 41 weeks gestational age by good dates and a 1^st trimester USG and wants to have her baby. Pt
reports good fetal movements, baby's kick count is abt. 8-10 times/hr. On exam cervix is firm, posterior, 50% effaced and 1 cm dilated and vertex is at -1 stn. What will be the next advice for the pt.

A 24 yr old primi female at term, has been dilated to 9 cms for 3 hrs.The fetal vertex is at Rt occipito posterior position and at +1 station.There have been mild decelerations for the last 10 mins.Twenty mins back fetal scalp Ph was 7.27 and now it is 7.20. Next line of management is: 

A 27-year-old G2P1 woman at 40 weeks' gestation presents in labor. She has a history of an uncomplicated spontaneous vaginal delivery of a healthy child weighing 3.9 kg (8.6 lb). On examination her blood pressure is 123/89 mm Hg, pulse is 87/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98°F). The fetal heart rate ranges from 140 to 150/min with
good beat-to-beat variability. Tocometry detects regular contractions occurring every 8-10 minutes. The cervix is dilated at 4 cm and the vertex is at the -3 position. Immediately after artificial rupture of
membranes, fetal bradycardia of 65-75/min is noted for 2 minutes without recovery.

Which of the following is the next best step in mgt:

        A chronic hypertensive pregnant female with BP controlled using antihypertensives should be delivered at:    

High-risk factor for gestational hypertension include all except:              

A 24-year-old woman with 36 weeks of pregnancy,suddenly complains of headache and blurring of vision. Her B.P. is 170/110 mm of Hg. Urinary albumin is +++ and examination of eyes shows areas of retinal hemorrhage. The line of further management would be:      

Which type of eclampsia has the worst prognosis:

40-year-old multigravida patient was visited the doctor in the female dispensary with signs of mild preeclampsia. What will be the management of such patient?

First trimester abortions are most commonly due to

Dystocia dystrophia syndrome

Least common type of pelvis

Trial labor is contraindicated except

Hematuria in previous LSCS  scar rupture is a sign of

Triradiate pelvis is seen in

Following is tue about Roberts pelvis

Deep transverse arrest occurs in pelvis

Definitive indications of LSCS in primigravida

A lady with previous CS presents in labour. Trial of normal vaginal delivery is contraindicated in

All are true regarding forceps and vacuum delivery except

Vacuum is contraindicated

Which statement is true regarding ventouse

. Commonest indication of  classical CS

Management of neglected shoulder presentation in dead fetus

Vacuum extraction is done except

Commonest cause for non-engagement of head in primigravida

Most common heart disease which is associated with maximum mortality during pregnancy
 

Which of the following is not a contraindication to pregnancy?
    

A 22-year-old primigravid woman comes to the labor and delivery ward at term with regular, painful contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. She has a past medical history significant for mitral valve prolapse with regurgitation demonstrated on echocardiography. She takes no medications and has no allergies to medications. Examination shows that her cervix is 4 centimeters dilated and the fetus is in vertex presentation. The fetal heart rate is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?